ISTQB Foundation Level Certification Software Testing - 15

431. What is typically the MOST important reason to use risk to drive testing efforts?
A Because testing everything is not feasible.
B Because risk-based testing is the most efficient approach to finding bugs.
C Because risk-based testing is the most effective way to show value.
D Because software is inherently risky.

432. Which of the following defines the scope of maintenance testing?
A The coverage of the current regression pack.
B The size and risk of any change(s) to the system.
C The time since the last change was made to the system.
D Defects found at the last regression test run.

433. Which is the MOST important advantage of independence in testing?
A An independent tester may find defects more quickly than the person who wrote the software. B An
independent tester may be more focused on showing how the software works than the person who wrote
the software.
C An independent tester may be more effective and efficient because they are less familiar with the
software than the person who wrote it.
D An independent tester may be more effective at finding defects missed by the person who wrote the software.

434. For testing, which of the options below best represents the main concerns of Configuration
Management?
i. All items of testware are identified and version controlled;
ii. All items of testware are used in the final acceptance test;
iii. All items of testware are stored in a common repository;
iv. All items of testware are tracked for change;
v. All items of testware are assigned to a responsible owner;
vi. All items of testware are related to each other and to development items.
A i, iv, vi.
B ii, iii, v.
C i, iii, iv.
D iv, v, vi.

435. Which of the following would be a valid measure of test progress?
A Number of undetected defects.
B Total number of defects in the product.
C Number of test cases not yet executed.
D Effort required to fix all defects.

436. Which of following statements is true? Select ALL correct options
Regression testing should be performed:
i once a month
ii when a defect has been fixed
iii when the test environment has changed
iv when the software has changed
A ii and iv.
B ii, iii and iv.
C i, ii and iii.
D i and iii.

437. In which of the following orders would the phases of a formal review usually occur?
A Planning, preparation, kick off, meeting, rework, follow up.
B Kick off, planning, preparation, meeting, rework, follow up.
C Preparation, planning, kick off, meeting, rework, follow up.
D Planning, kick off, preparation, meeting, rework, follow up.

438. Which of the following are valid objectives for incident reports?
i. Provide developers and other parties with feedback about the problem to enable identification, isolation
and correction as necessary.
ii. Provide ideas for test process improvement.
iii. Provide a vehicle for assessing tester competence.
iv. Provide testers with a means of tracking the quality of the system under test.
A i, ii, iii.
B i, ii, iv.
C i, iii, iv.
D ii, iii, iv.

439. Consider the following techniques. Which are static and which are dynamic techniques?
i. Equivalence Partitioning.
ii. Use Case Testing.
iii.Data Flow Analysis.
iv.Exploratory Testing.
v. Decision Testing.
vi Inspections.
A i-iv are static, v-vi are dynamic.
B iii and vi are static, i, ii, iv and v are dynamic.
C ii, iii and vi are static, i, iv and v are dynamic.
D vi is static, i-v are dynamic.

440. Why are static testing and dynamic testing described as complementary?
A Because they share the aim of identifying defects and find the same types of defect.
B Because they have different aims and differ in the types of defect they find.
C Because they have different aims but find the same types of defect.
D Because they share the aim of identifying defects but differ in the types of defect they find.

441. Which of the following are disadvantages of capturing tests by recording the actions of a manual
tester?
i The script may be unstable when unexpected events occur.
ii Data for a number of similar tests is automatically stored separately from the script.
iii Expected results must be added to the captured script.
iv The captured script documents the exact inputs entered by the tester.
v When replaying a captured test, the tester may need to debug the script if it doesn’t play correctly.
A i, iii, iv, v.
B ii, iv and v.
C i, ii and iv.
D i and v.

442. Which of the following is determined by the level of product risk identified?
A Extent of testing.
B Scope for the use of test automation.
C Size of the test team.
D Requirement for regression testing.

443. Deciding How much testing is enough should take into account :-
i. Level of Risk including Technical and Business product and project risk
ii. Project constraints such as time and budget
iii. Size of Testing Team
iv. Size of the Development Team
a) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
b) i,,iv are true and ii is false
c) i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
d) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false

444. Test planning has which of the following major tasks?
i. Determining the scope and risks, and identifying the objectives of testing.
ii. Determining the test approach (techniques,test items, coverage, identifying and interfacing the teams
involved in testing , testware)
iii. Reviewing the Test Basis (such as requirements,architecture,design,interface)
iv. Determining the exit criteria.
a) i,ii,iv are true and iii is false
b) i,,iv are true and ii is false
c) i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
d) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false

445. Evaluating testability of the requirements and system are a part of which phase:-
a) Test Analysis and Design
b) Test Planning and control
c) Test Implementation and execution
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

446. One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alphabets in lower or upper case.
Indentify the invalid Equivalance class value.
a. CLASS
b. cLASS
c. CLass
d. CLa01ss

447. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10% The next £28000 is taxed at
22% Any further amount is taxed at 40% Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same
equivalence class?
a) £4800; £14000; £28000
b) £5200; £5500; £28000
c) £28001; £32000; £35000
d) £5800; £28000; £32000

448. Which of the following has highest level of independence in which test cases are :
a) Designed by persons who write the software under test
b) Designed by a person from a different section
c) Designed by a person from a different organization
d) Designed by another person

449. We use the output of the requirement analysis, the requirement specification as the input for writing
:-
a) User Acceptance Test Cases
b) Integration Level Test Cases
c) Unit Level Test Cases
d) Program specifications

450. Validation involves which of the following
i. Helps to check the Quality of the Built Product
ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product.
iii. Helps in developing the product
iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.
a) Options i,ii,iii,iv are true.
b) ii is true and i,iii,iv are false
c) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
d) iii is true and i,ii,iv are false.

451. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?
a) Component testing
b) Non-functional system testing
c) User acceptance testing
d) Maintenance testing

452. Repeated Testing of an already tested program, after modification, to discover any defects
introduced or uncovered as a result of the changes in the software being tested or in another related or
unrelated software component:
a) Re Testing .
b) Confirmation Testing
c) Regression Testing
d) Negative Testing

453. Impact Analysis helps to decide :-
a) How much regression testing should be done.
b) Exit Criteria
c) How many more test cases need to written.
d) Different Tools to perform Regression Testing

454. Functional system testing is:
a) testing that the system functions with other systems
b) testing that the components that comprise the system function together
c) testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole
d) testing the system performs functions within specified response times

455. Consider the below state transition diagram of a switch. Which of the following represents an invalid
state transition?
a) OFF to ON
b) ON to OFF
c) FAULT to ON

456. Peer Reviews are also called as :-
a) Inspection
b) Walkthrough
c) Technical Review
d) Formal Review

457. Consider the following statements:
i. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
ii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
iii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
iv. 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
v. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
a) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
b) i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False
c) ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False
d) ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False

458. The Kick Off phase of a formal review includes the following :-
a) Explaining the objective
b) Fixing defects found typically done by author
c) Follow up
d) Individual Meeting preparations

459. Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the Testing Life cycle:
i. Hi-level design a Unit tests
ii. Code b Acceptance tests
iii. Low-level design c System tests
iv. Business requirements d Integration tests
a) i-d , ii-a , iii-c , iv-b
b) i-c , ii-d , iii-a , iv-b
c) i-b , ii-a , iii-d , iv-c
d) i-c , ii-a , iii-d , iv-b

460. Which of the following is not phase of the Fundamental Test Process?
a) Test Planning and Control
b) Test implementation and Execution
c) Requirement Analysis
d) Evaluating Exit criteria and reporting

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