CSTE Certficiation question dumps on Software testing continued.
System Testing - $ 500 Phase
Reviews - $ 650
Code review - $ 500 Review
of User Documents - $ 600
b)
Equivalence partitioning
231.
Which of the following defines the “SPICE”?
a) SEI CMM
b) ISO/EIA 12207
c) ISO 9001:2000
d)
ISO/IEC TR 15504
232. The two components of the “Manage By Fact”
process are
a)
Meeting
the desired results
b)
Managing
to meet the customer requirements on fact gathering
c)
Managing
the process to drive the results
d) A & C
e)
B
& C
233.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a ‘Service Level Agreement’?
a)
It
defines the obligations of the services/product provider towards the customer
b)
It
has terms for maintenance of the product/service
c) It does not mention the obligation of the customer
d)
None
of the above
234.
Function point analysis involves
a)
Amount
of information processing function
b)
System
characteristics
c)
Degree
of influence
d) All of the above
e)
None
of the above
235.
Why does it help to visit other companies to identify effective Quality practices?
a)
Reuse
organizational learning
b)
Continually
benchmark
c)
Interact
with other Quality professionals
d) All of the above
e)
None
of the above
236.
Which step of the listening process requires to give continuous feedback
a)
Hearing
the speaker
b) Attending to the speaker
c)
Understanding
the speaker
237. Any additional feature required by the
customer, which is not mentioned in the requirements is a(n) __________ from
the producers' point of view:
a) enhancement
b) defect
c) modification
d) None of the above
238. What are the
three Cs in the today’s IT workplace (of QA profession within IT)
a) Completeness, Change and
Conformance
b) Change, Conformance and
Configuration
c) Change, Complexity and Competition
d) None of the above
239. Audit plan is
prepared during the definition phase.
a) True
b) False
240. Who created the
theory of FIRO
a) James Baehler
b)
W.C. Shutz
c) Taichi Ohno
d) Dr. Ishikawa
241. Given the following
costs:
Requirements
analysis - $ 1000 Rework - $ 700
System Testing - $ 500 Phase
Reviews - $ 650
Code review - $ 500 Review
of User Documents - $ 600
Continuing
Edn. Programs. - $ 800 Design
- $ 400
Client
Entertainment - $ 800
The
cost of Quality is
a)
$
4500
b)
$
1100
c)
$
1600
d) $ 3750
e)
$
3500
242. In an
organization, the process is stabilized and documentation exists. What is the
rating for this level?
a) level 1
b) level 2
c) level 3
d) level 4
e) level 5
243. Malcolm
Balridge who was a defense secretary invented MBNQA
a) True
b) False
244. Industry
accepted definitions of quality are “conformance to requirements” (from Philip
Crosby) and “fit for use” (from Dr. Joseph Juran and Dr. W. Edwards Deming).
These two definitions are contradictory.
a)
True
b)
False
245. Most Information Technology (IT) groups have the
quality gaps between: ----------------------.
a)
Producer gap
b)
Supplier gap
c)
Customer gap
d)
Provider gap
e) A
& C
f)
A & B
246. A major premise of a quality management environment
is an emphasis on continuous improvement. The approach to continuous
improvement is best illustrated using the -----------------------------, which
was developed in the 1930s by Dr. Shewhart of the Bell
a)
System development life cycle
b) PDCA Cycle
c)
Quality Improvement Cycle
d)
Product Life Cycle
247. The structure and application of controls must be
clear to all parties concerned. In this respect, two levels of control exist
within an environment:
a)
Management controls.
b)
Application controls
c)
System Controls
d)
Quality controls
e) A
& B
f)
B & C
248. Defects are recorded ________________
a) to
report status of the application
b) to
gather statistics used to develop defect expectations in future applications
c)
to improve the software development process.
d) to
ensure the defect is corrected
e)
All of
the above
249. The system design SDLC phase is immediately followed
by
a) Initiation
b) Definition
c) Evaluation
d)
Programming and training
e) Operation
250. Resource planning, audit planning, estimation,
scheduling are the some of the tasks carried out in
a) Initiation phase
b) System design phase
c)
Definition Phase
d) Evaluation phase
251. Internal control encompasses the plan of organization
and all of the methods and measures adopted within a business to:
a)
Safeguard
its assets
b)
Promote
operational efficiency
c)
Check
the accuracy and reliability of accounting data
d)
Encourage
adherence to prescribed policies
e) All of the above
e) All of the above
f)
None
of the above
252. As part of management control, the division of
responsibilities provide
a) efficiencies derived
from specialization
b)
cross-check
that promote accuracy without duplication or wasted effort
c)
safeguarding
of assets
d)
enhances
the effectiveness of a management control system
e) All of the above
e) All of the above
f)
None
of the above
251. System reviews
and software testing are examples of _____________.
a)
Quality Control
b) Quality Assurance
c) Quality Audits
d) None of the above
252. The
___________ is the process used to verify and validate the system structurally
and functionally.
a)
Tester’s workbench
b) Developer’s workbench
c) Owner’s workbench
d) Manager’s workbench
253. ___________
testing is done without executing the code.
a)
Regression
b)
Unit
c)
System
d) Static
254. Identification
of defects within the stage or phase of the project where they originate,
rather than in later test stages is referred to as _______________.
a) Stage containment
b)
Early
catch
c)
Defect
Prevention
d)
Defect
containment
255. Informal,
unstructured reviews of the program source code against specifications and
standards to find defects and verify coding techniques are called __________ .
a)
Inspection
b)
Buddy
reviews
c) Code walkthrough
d)
Peer
Review
256. Which of the
following is not a white box testing technique
a)
Statement
coverage
b)
Equivalence partitioning
c)
decision/condition
coverage
d)
multiple
condition coverage
257. ____________ is the way of Incremental
testing which begins testing from top of the module hierarchy and works down to
the bottom using interim stubs to simulate lower interfacing modules or programs.
a)
Bottom-up
b) Top-down
c)
Lateral
d)
Block-by-block
258. Which of the
following task is not performed by V&V management
a)
Create
the software V&V plan
b) Conduct Management
Review of V & V
c)
Support
Management and Technical Reviews
d)
Interface
with Organizational and Supporting Processes
e) Conduct In-process reviews
e) Conduct In-process reviews
259. Awareness
Trainings should be limited to
a)
1/2
hour
b)
1
hour
c) 2 hour
d)
3
hour
e)
3-4
hour
260. The ultimate
goal of JIT is supply each process –
a)
the
exactly required item
b)
in exactly required quantity
c)
at exactly required time
d) All three
261. Pull system
means –
a)
Quickly
changing work capabilities
b) Reducing errors,
defects, waste
c) Data is
moved forward when
it is needed
by next operation.
262. Mercury's test
director is a tool to support ____________ tracking process.
a)
Requirements
b) Defect
c)
Change
Requests
d)
Leave
taken by testers
263. Probability of
a software failure -----------
a)
Defect
rate
b) Reliability
b) Reliability
c)
Correctness
d)
Testability
264. Who is
responsible for risk management?
a)
Team
members
b)
Project
Leader
c)
Project Manager
d)
Program
Manager
265. Major uses of
quantitative data
a)
Manage and control the process
b)
Manage
and control the product
c)
Improve
the product
d)
Manage
the risks
e)
All of the above
266. Function
Points
a)
measure
of the system size
b)
can
be used to compare different kinds of application systems
c)
together
with past data can be used to estimate future effort
d) all of the above
e)
none
of the above
267. Workbenches
are also called _____________
a)
Phases
b)
Steps
c)
Tasks
d) All of the above
d) All of the above
e)
None
of the above
268. Five
components of a process represent the vocabulary of process management –
a)
Policy,
Procedures, Training, Input and Output/deliverables.
b) Vision, Mission
c) Policy, Standards, Inputs, Procedures and Output/deliverables.
d)
Policy,
Guidelines, Procedures, Standards and Milestones
269. Business
Control model includes three general areas of control –
a) Management processes Control, Work processes Control
and Check Processes Control.
b)
Statistical
Process Control, Statistical Quality Control and Statistical Product Control
c)
Process
Control, Product Control and Environment Control
d)
Quality
Control, Management Control and Customer Control
270. A standard
must be _________________________
a)
Smart,
Measurable, and Time-bound
b)
Measurable,
Achievable and Clear
c)
Approved,
Available and Attainable
d) Measurable, Attainable and Critical
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