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ISTQB Foundation Level Certification Software Testing - 12

341. What makes an inspection different from other review types?
a. It is led by a trained leader, uses formal entry and exit criteria and checklists
b. It is led by the author of the document to be inspected
c. It can only be used for reviewing design and code
d. It is led by the author, uses checklists, and collects data for improvement

342. Which of the following is a valid collection of equivalence classes for the following problem: An
integer field shall contain values from and including 1 to and including 15
a. Less than 1, 1 through 15, more than 15
b. Negative numbers, 1 through 15, above 15
c. Less than 1, 1 through 14, more than 15
d. Less than 0, 1 through 14, 15 and more

343. Which of the following is a valid collection of equivalence classes for the following problem: Paying
with credit cards shall be possible with Visa, Master and Amex cards only.
a. Visa, Master, Amex;
b. Visa, Master, Amex, Diners, Keycards, and other option
c. Visa, Master, Amex, any other card, no card
d. No card, other cards, any of Visa – Master – Amex

344. Which of the following techniques are black box techniques?
a. State transition testing, code testing, agile testing
b. Equivalence partitioning, state transition testing, decision table testing
c. System testing, acceptance testing, equivalence partitioning
d. System integration testing, system testing, decision table testing

345. A defect management system shall keep track of the status of every defect registered and enforce
the rules about changing these states. If your task is to test the status tracking, which method would be
a. Logic-based testing
b. Use-case-based testing
c. State transition testing
d. Systematic testing according to the V-model

346. If a program is tested and 100% condition coverage is achieved, which of the following coverage
criteria is then guaranteed to be achieved?
a. 100% branch coverage
b. 100% condition coverage and 100% statement coverage
c. Equivalence class and boundary value coverage
d. No other white box coverage criterion is guaranteed to be fulfilled 100%

347. This part of a program is given:-
WHILE (condition A) Do B
How many decisions should be tested in this code in order to achieve 100% decision coverage?
a. 2
b. Indefinite
c. 1
d. 4

348. Why can be tester dependent on configuration management?
a. Because configuration management assures that we know the exact version of the testware and the test object
b. Because test execution is not allowed to proceed without the consent of the change control board
c. Because changes in the test object are always subject to configuration management
d. Because configuration management assures the right configuration of the test tools

349. What test items should be put under configuration management?
a. The test object, the test material and the test environment
b. The problem reports and the test material
c. Only the test object. The test cases need to be adapted during agile testing
d. The test object and the test material

350. Why is successful test execution automation difficult?
a. Because the tools for automated testing require too much effort for learning
b. Because the maintenance of the test system is difficult
c. Because the test robot tools are restricted in their ability to recognize outputs
d. Because the test robot needs to be supported by a test management.

351. Which of the following can be root cause of a bug in a software product?
(I) The project had incomplete procedures for configuration management.
(II) The time schedule to develop a certain component was cut.
(III) the specification was unclear
(IV) Use of the code standard was not followed up
(V) The testers were not certified
a. (I) and (II) are correct
b. (I) through (IV) are correct
c. (III) through (V) are correct
d. (I), (II) and (IV) are correct

352. Which of the following is most often considered as components interface bug?
a. For two components exchanging data, one component used metric units, the other one used British units
b. The system is difficult to use due to a too complicated terminal input structure
c. The messages for user input errors are misleading and not helpful for understanding the input error
d. Under high load, the system does not provide enough open ports to connect to

353. Which of the following project inputs influence testing?
(I) contractual requirements
(II) legal requirements
(III) Industry standards
(IV) application risk
(V) project size
a. (I) through (III) are correct
b. All alternatives are correct
c. (II) and (V) are correct
d. (I), (III) and (V) are correct

354. If a program is tested and 100% branch coverage is achieved, which of the following coverage
criteria is then guaranteed to be achieved?
a. 100% Equivalence class coverage
b. 100% Condition coverage and 100% Statement coverage
c. 100% Statement coverage
d. 100% Multiple condition coverage

355. This part of a program is given:-
WHILE (condition A) Do B
How many paths should be tested in this code in order to achieve 100% path coverage?
a. One
b. Indefinite
c. Two
d. Four

356. What is the purpose of test exit criteria in the test plan?
a. To specify when to stop the testing activity
b. To set the criteria used in generating test inputs
c. To ensure that the test case specification is complete
d. To know when a specific test has finished its execution

357. Which of the following items need not to be given in an incident report?
a. The version number of the test object
b. Test data and used environment
c. Identification of the test case that failed
d. The location and instructions on how to correct the fault

358. V-Model is:
a. A software development model that illustrates how testing activities integrate with software development phases
b. A software life-cycle model that is not relevant for testing
c. The official software development and testing life-cycle model of ISTQB
d. A testing life cycle model including unit, integration, system and acceptance phases

359. Why is incremental integration preferred over “big bang” integration?
a. Because incremental integration has better early defects screening and isolation ability
b. Because “big bang” integration is suitable only for real time applications
c. Incremental integration is preferred over “Big Bang Integration” only for “bottom up” development
d. Because incremental integration can compensate for weak and inadequate component

360. Maintenance testing is:
a. Testing management
b. Synonym of testing the quality of service
c. Triggered by modifications, migration or retirement of existing software
d. Testing the level of maintenance by the vendor

361. A test engineer is testing a Video Player (VCR), and logs the following report:
Title: Fast Forward stops after 2 minutes. It happens every time
Expected result: Fast forward continues till the end of the tape
Severity: High
Priority: Urgent
What important information did the engineer leave out?
a. Identification (Software and hardware) of the VCR
b. Actual result
c. History of the report
d. Ideas for the test case improvement

362. Why is it necessary to define a Test Strategy?
a. As there are many different ways to test software, thought must be given to decide what will be the
most effective way to test the project on hand.
b. Starting testing without prior planning leads to chaotic and inefficient test project
c. A strategy is needed to inform the project management how the test team will schedule the test-cycles
d. Software failure may cause loss of money, time, business reputation, and in extreme cases injury and death. It is therefore critical to have a proper test strategy in place.

363. Designing the test environment set-up and identifying any required infrastructure and tools are a part
of which phase
a) Test Implementation and execution
b) Test Analysis and Design
c) Evaluating the Exit Criteria and reporting
d) Test Closure Activities

364. Test Implementation and execution has which of the following major tasks?
i. Developing and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally
preparing the test harnesses and writing automated test scripts.
ii. Creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test execution.
iii. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.
iv. Determining the exit criteria.
a) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
b) i,,iv are true and ii is false
c) i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
d) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false

365. A Test Plan Outline contains which of the following :-
i. Test Items
ii. Test Scripts
iii. Test Deliverables
iv. Responsibilities
a) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
b) i,iii,iv are true and ii is false
c) ii,iii are true and i and iv are false
d) i,ii are false and iii , iv are true

366. One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts numeric values in the range of 18 to 25.
Indentify the invalid Equivalance class
a) 17
b) 19
c) 24
d) 21

367. In a Examination a candidate has to score minimum of 24 marks inorder to clear the exam. The
maximum that he can score is 40 marks. Identify the Valid Equivalance values if the student clears the
a) 22,23,26
b) 21,39,40
c) 29,30,31
d) 0,15,22

368. Which of the following statements regarding static testing is false:
a) static testing requires the running of tests through the code
b) static testing includes desk checking
c) static testing includes techniques such as reviews and inspections
d) static testing can give measurements such as cyclomatic complexity

369. Verification involves which of the following :-
i. Helps to check the Quality of the built product
ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product.
iii. Helps in developing the product
iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.
a) Options i,ii,iii,iv are true.
b) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
c) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
d) ii is true and i,iii,iv are false.

370. Component Testing is also called as :-
i. Unit Testing
ii. Program Testing
iii. Module Testing
iv. System Component Testing
a) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
b) i,ii,iii,iv are false
c) i,ii,iv are true and iii is false
d) all of above is true

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