CSTE Certification Questions 7

CSTE Certficiation question dumps on Software testing continued.

231. Which of the following defines the “SPICE”?
a)    SEI CMM
b)    ISO/EIA 12207
c)    ISO 9001:2000
d)   ISO/IEC TR 15504

232.  The two components of the “Manage By Fact” process are
a)    Meeting the desired results
b)    Managing to meet the customer requirements on fact gathering
c)    Managing the process to drive the results
d)   A & C
e)    B & C

233. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a ‘Service Level Agreement’?
a)    It defines the obligations of the services/product provider towards the customer
b)    It has terms for maintenance of the product/service
c)   It does not mention the obligation of the customer
d)    None of the above

234. Function point analysis involves
a)    Amount of information processing function
b)    System characteristics
c)    Degree of influence
d)   All of the above
e)    None of the above

235. Why does it help to visit other companies to identify effective Quality practices?
a)    Reuse organizational learning
b)    Continually benchmark
c)    Interact with other Quality professionals
d)   All of the above
e)    None of the above

236. Which step of the listening process requires to give continuous feedback
a)    Hearing the speaker
b)   Attending to the speaker
c)    Understanding the speaker

237. Any additional feature required by the customer, which is not mentioned in the requirements is a(n) __________ from the producers' point of view:

a)   enhancement
b)    defect
c)    modification
d)    None of the above

238. What are the three Cs in the today’s IT workplace (of QA profession within IT)
a)    Completeness, Change and Conformance
b)    Change, Conformance and Configuration
c)   Change, Complexity and Competition
d)    None of the above

239. Audit plan is prepared during the definition phase.
a)   True
b)    False

240. Who created the theory of FIRO
a)  James Baehler
b)   W.C. Shutz
c)    Taichi Ohno
d)    Dr. Ishikawa

241. Given the following costs:

Requirements analysis - $ 1000   Rework   - $ 700

System Testing - $   500    Phase Reviews - $  650

Code review  - $  500   Review of User Documents - $ 600

Continuing Edn. Programs.   - $   800      Design - $ 400
Client Entertainment  - $  800      

The cost of Quality is
a)    $ 4500
b)    $ 1100
c)    $ 1600
d)   $ 3750
e)    $ 3500

242. In an organization, the process is stabilized and documentation exists. What is the rating for this level?
a)    level 1
b)    level 2
c)    level 3
d)    level 4
e)    level 5

243. Malcolm Balridge who was a defense secretary invented MBNQA
a)    True
b)    False

244. Industry accepted definitions of quality are “conformance to requirements” (from Philip Crosby) and “fit for use” (from Dr. Joseph Juran and Dr. W. Edwards Deming). These two definitions are contradictory.
a)    True
b)   False

245. Most Information Technology (IT) groups have the quality gaps between: ----------------------.
a)    Producer gap
b)    Supplier gap
c)    Customer gap
d)    Provider gap
e)   A & C
f)    A & B

246. A major premise of a quality management environment is an emphasis on continuous improvement. The approach to continuous improvement is best illustrated using the -----------------------------, which was developed in the 1930s by Dr. Shewhart of the Bell System.
a)    System development life cycle
b)   PDCA  Cycle
c)    Quality Improvement Cycle
d)    Product Life Cycle

247. The structure and application of controls must be clear to all parties concerned. In this respect, two levels of control exist within an environment:
a)    Management controls.
b)    Application controls
c)    System Controls
d)    Quality controls
e)   A & B
f)    B & C

248. Defects are recorded ________________
a)    to report status of the application
b)    to gather statistics used to develop defect expectations in future applications
c)    to improve the software development process.
d)    to ensure the defect is corrected
e)   All of the above

249. The system design SDLC phase is immediately followed by
a)    Initiation
b)    Definition
c)    Evaluation
d)   Programming and training
e)    Operation

250. Resource planning, audit planning, estimation, scheduling are the some of the tasks carried out in 
a)    Initiation phase
b)    System design phase
c)   Definition Phase
d)    Evaluation phase

251. Internal control encompasses the plan of organization and all of the methods and measures adopted within a business to:
a)    Safeguard its assets
b)    Promote operational efficiency
c)    Check the accuracy and reliability of accounting data
d)    Encourage adherence to prescribed policies
e)   All of the above
f)    None of the above

252. As part of management control, the division of responsibilities provide
a)    efficiencies derived from specialization
b)    cross-check that promote accuracy without duplication or wasted effort
c)    safeguarding of assets
d)    enhances the effectiveness of a management control system
e)   All of the above
f)    None of the above

251. System reviews and software testing are examples of _____________.
a)   Quality Control
b)    Quality Assurance
c)    Quality Audits
d)    None of the above

252. The ___________ is the process used to verify and validate the system structurally and functionally.
a)   Tester’s workbench
b)    Developer’s workbench
c)    Owner’s workbench
d)    Manager’s workbench

253. ___________ testing is done without executing the code.
a)    Regression
b)    Unit
c)    System
d)   Static

254. Identification of defects within the stage or phase of the project where they originate, rather than in later test stages is referred to as _______________.
a)   Stage containment
b)    Early catch
c)    Defect Prevention
d)    Defect containment

255. Informal, unstructured reviews of the program source code against specifications and standards to find defects and verify coding techniques are called __________ .
a)    Inspection
b)    Buddy reviews
c)   Code walkthrough
d)    Peer Review

256. Which of the following is not a white box testing technique

a)    Statement coverage

b)   Equivalence partitioning

c)    decision/condition coverage
d)    multiple condition coverage

257.  ____________ is the way of Incremental testing which begins testing from top of the module hierarchy and works down to the bottom using interim stubs to simulate lower interfacing modules or programs.
a)    Bottom-up
b)   Top-down
c)    Lateral
d)    Block-by-block

258. Which of the following task is not performed by V&V management
a)    Create the software V&V plan
b)    Conduct Management Review of V & V
c)    Support Management and Technical Reviews
d)    Interface with Organizational and Supporting Processes
e)   Conduct In-process reviews

259. Awareness Trainings should be limited to
a)    1/2 hour
b)    1 hour
c)   2 hour
d)    3 hour
e)    3-4 hour

260. The ultimate goal of JIT is supply each process –
a)    the exactly required item
b)    in  exactly required quantity
c)    at  exactly required time
d)   All three

261. Pull system means –
a)    Quickly changing work capabilities
b)    Reducing errors, defects, waste
c)   Data is  moved  forward  when  it  is  needed  by  next operation.                             

262. Mercury's test director is a tool to support ____________ tracking process.
a)    Requirements
b)   Defect
c)    Change Requests
d)    Leave taken by testers

263. Probability of a software failure -----------
a)    Defect rate
b)   Reliability
c)    Correctness
d)    Testability

264. Who is responsible for risk management?
a)    Team members
b)    Project Leader
c)   Project Manager
d)    Program Manager

265. Major uses of quantitative data
a)    Manage and control the process
b)    Manage and control the product
c)    Improve the product
d)    Manage the risks
e)   All of the above

266. Function Points
a)    measure of the system size
b)    can be used to compare different kinds of application systems
c)    together with past data can be used to estimate future effort
d)   all of the above
e)    none of the above

267. Workbenches are also called  _____________
a)    Phases
b)    Steps
c)    Tasks
d)   All of the above
e)    None of the above

268. Five components of a process represent the vocabulary of process management –
a)    Policy, Procedures, Training, Input and Output/deliverables.
b)    Vision, Mission, Objectives, Goals, and Process
c)   Policy, Standards, Inputs, Procedures and Output/deliverables.
d)    Policy, Guidelines, Procedures, Standards and Milestones

269. Business Control model includes three general areas of control –
a)   Management processes Control, Work processes Control and Check Processes Control.
b)    Statistical Process Control, Statistical Quality Control and Statistical Product Control
c)    Process Control, Product Control and Environment Control
d)    Quality Control, Management Control and Customer Control

270. A standard must be _________________________
a)    Smart, Measurable, and Time-bound
b)    Measurable, Achievable and Clear
c)    Approved, Available and Attainable
d)   Measurable, Attainable and Critical

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