Articles On Testing

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Articles On Testing

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Articles On Testing

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Articles On Testing

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Articles On Testing

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ISTQB Foundation Level Certification Software Testing - 6


161) What information need not be included in a test incident report:
a) how to fix the fault
b) how to reproduce the fault
c) test environment details
d) severity, priority
e) the actual and expected outcomes

162) Which expression best matches the following characteristics or review processes:
1. led by author
2. undocumented
3. no management participation
4. led by a trained moderator or leader
5. uses entry exit criteria
s) inspection
t) peer review
u) informal review
v) walkthrough
a) s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
b) s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
c) s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
d) s = 5, t = 4, u = 3, v = 1 and 2
e) s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u = 2, v = 3

163) Which of the following is NOT part of system testing:
a) business process-based testing
b) performance, load and stress testing
c) requirements-based testing
d) usability testing
e) top-down integration testing

164) What statement about expected outcomes is FALSE:
a) expected outcomes are defined by the software’s behaviour
b) expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
c) expected outcomes include outputs to a screen and changes to files and databases
d) expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
e) expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times

165) The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:
a) ISO/IEC 12207
b) BS7925-1
c) BS7925-2
d) ANSI/IEEE 829
e) ANSI/IEEE 729

166) The cost of fixing a fault:
a) Is not important
b) Increases as we move the product towards live use
c) Decreases as we move the product towards live use
d) Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional design
e) Can never be determined

167) Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation
Standard:
a) Test items (i.e. software versions)
b) What is not to be tested
c) Test environments
d) Quality plans
e) Schedules and deadlines

168) Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing:
a) No, because they apply to development documentation
b) No, because they are normally applied before testing
c) No, because they do not apply to the test documentation
d) Yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality
e) Yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities

169) Which of the following is not part of performance testing:
a) Measuring response time
b) Measuring transaction rates
c) Recovery testing
d) Simulating many users
e) Generating many transactions

170) Error guessing is best used
a) As the first approach to deriving test cases
b) After more formal techniques have been applied
c) By inexperienced testers
d) After the system has gone live
e) Only by end users

171. COTS is known as
A. Commercial off the shelf software
B. Compliance of the software
C. Change control of the software
D. Capable off the shelf software

172. From the below given choices, which one is the ‘Confidence testing’
A. Sanity testing
B. System testing
C. Smoke testing
D. Regression testing

173. ‘Defect Density’ calculated in terms of
A. The number of defects identified in a component or system divided by the size of the component or the system
B. The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by that test phase and any
other means after wards
C. The number of defects identified in the component or system divided by the number of defects found
by a test phase
D. The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by the size of the system

174. ‘Be bugging’ is known as
A. Preventing the defects by inspection
B. Fixing the defects by debugging
C. Adding known defects by seeding
D. A process of fixing the defects by tester

175. An expert based test estimation is also known as
A. Narrow band Delphi
B. Wide band Delphi
C. Bespoke Delphi
D. Robust Delphi

176. When testing a grade calculation system, a tester determines that all scores from 90 to 100 will yield a
grade of A, but scores below 90 will not. This analysis is known as:
A. Equivalence partitioning
B. Boundary value analysis
C. Decision table
D. Hybrid analysis

177. All of the following might be done during unit testing except
A. Desk check
B. Manual support testing
C. Walkthrough
D. Compiler based testing

178. Find the Min number of tests to ensure that each statement is executed at least once
A. 5
B. 6
C. 4
D. 8

179. Which of the following characteristics is primarily associated with software reusability?
A. The extent to which the software can be used in other applications
B. The extent to which the software can be used by many different users
C. The capability of the software to be moved to a different platform
D. The capability of one system to be coupled with another system

180. Which of the following software change management activities is most vital to assessing the impact
of proposed software modifications?
A. Baseline identification
B. Configuration auditing
C. Change control
D. Version control

181. Which of the following statements is true about a software verification and validation program?
I. It strives to ensure that quality is built into software.
II. It provides management with insights into the state of a software project.
III. It ensures that alpha, beta, and system tests are performed.
IV. It is executed in parallel with software development activities.
A. I, II&III
B.II, III&IV
C.I, II&IV
D.I, III&IV

182. Which of the following is a requirement of an effective software environment?
I. Ease of use
II. Capacity for incremental implementation
III. Capability of evolving with the needs of a project
IV. Inclusion of advanced tools
A.I, II &III
B.I, II &IV
C.II, III&IV
D.I, III&IV

183. A test manager wants to use the resources available for the automated testing of a web application.
The best choice is
A. Test automater, web specialist, DBA, test lead
B. Tester, test automater, web specialist, DBA
C. Tester, test lead, test automater, DBA
D. Tester, web specialist, test lead, test automater

184. A project manager has been transferred to a major software development project that is in the
implementation phase. The highest priority for this project manager should be to
A. Establish a relationship with the customer
B. Learn the project objectives and the existing project plan
C. Modify the project’ s organizational structure to meet the manager’ s management style
D. Ensure that the project proceeds at its current pace

185. Change X requires a higher level of authority than Change Y in which of the following pairs?
Change X Change Y
A. Code in development Code in production
B. Specifications during requirements analysis Specifications during systems test
C. Documents requested by the technical development group Documents requested by customers
D. A product distributed to several sites A product with a single user

186. Which of the following functions is typically supported by a software quality information system?
I. Record keeping
II. System design
III. Evaluation scheduling
IV. Error reporting
A.I, II&III
B.II, III &IV
C.I, III &IV
D.I, II & IV

187. During the testing of a module tester ‘X’ finds a bug and assigned it to developer. But developer
rejects the same, saying that it’s not a bug. What ‘X’ should do?
A. Report the issue to the test manager and try to settle with the developer.
B. Retest the module and confirm the bug
C. Assign the same bug to another developer
D. Send to the detailed information of the bug encountered and check the reproducibility

188. The primary goal of comparing a user manual with the actual behavior of the running program during
system testing is to
A. Find bugs in the program
B. Check the technical accuracy of the document
C. Ensure the ease of use of the document
D. Ensure that the program is the latest version

189. A type of integration testing in which software elements, hardware elements, or both are combined
all at once into a component or an overall system, rather than in stages.
A. System Testing
B. Big-Bang Testing
C. Integration Testing
D. Unit Testing

190. In practice, which Life Cycle model may have more, fewer or different levels of development and
testing, depending on the project and the software product. For example, there may be component
integration testing after component testing, and system integration testing after system testing.
A. Water Fall Model
B.V-Model
C. Spiral Model
D. RAD Model

ISTQB Foundation Level Certification Software Testing - 5


131) When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the specific or expected behavior, this is called:
a) an error
b) a fault
c) a failure
d) a defect
e) a mistake

132) Regression testing should be performed:
v) every week
w) after the software has changed
x) as often as possible
y) when the environment has changed
z) when the project manager says
a) v & w are true, x – z are false
b) w, x & y are true, v & z are false
c) w & y are true, v, x & z are false
d) w is true, v, x y and z are false
e) all of the above are true

133) IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except:
a) test items
b) test deliverables
c) test tasks
d) test environment
e) test specification

134) Testing should be stopped when:
a) all the planned tests have been run
b) time has run out
c) all faults have been fixed correctly
d) both a) and c)
e) it depends on the risks for the system being tested

135) Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of the
following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and valid
boundaries:
a) 1000, 5000, 99999
b) 9999, 50000, 100000
c) 10000, 50000, 99999
d) 10000, 99999
e) 9999, 10000, 50000, 99999, 10000

136) Consider the following statements about early test design:
i. early test design can prevent fault multiplication
ii. faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix
iii. early test design can find faults
iv. early test design can cause changes to the requirements
v. early test design takes more effort
a) i, iii & iv are true. Ii & v are false
b) iii is true, I, ii, iv & v are false
c) iii & iv are true. i, ii & v are false
d) i, iii, iv & v are true, ii us false
e) i & iii are true, ii, iv & v are false

137 Non-functional system testing includes:
a) testing to see where the system does not function properly
b) testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
c) testing a system feature using only the software required for that action
d) testing a system feature using only the software required for that function
e) testing for functions that should not exist

138) Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management:
a) status accounting of configuration items
b) auditing conformance to ISO9001
c) identification of test versions
d) record of changes to documentation over time
e) controlled library access

139) Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing in the
small?
a) to ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately
b) to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
c) to specify which modules to combine when and how many at once
d) to ensure that the integration testing can be performed by a small team
e) to specify how the software should be divided into modules

140) What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:
a) to know when a specific test has finished its execution
b) to ensure that the test case specification is complete
c) to set the criteria used in generating test inputs
d) to know when test planning is complete
e) to plan when to stop testing


141) Consider the following statements
i. an incident may be closed without being fixed
ii. incidents may not be raised against documentation
iii. the final stage of incident tracking is fixing
iv. the incident record does not include information on test environments
v. incidents should be raised when someone other than the author of the software performs the test
a) ii and v are true, I, iii and iv are false
b) i and v are true, ii, iii and iv are false
c) i, iv and v are true, ii and iii are false
d) i and ii are true, iii, iv and v are false
e) i is true, ii, iii, iv and v are false

142) Given the following code, which is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full
statement and branch coverage:
Read P
Read Q
IF P+Q > 100 THEN
Print “Large”
ENDIF
If P > 50 THEN
Print “P Large”
ENDIF
a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

143) Given the following:
Switch PC on
Start “outlook”
IF outlook appears THEN
Send an email
Close outlook
a) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage

144) Given the following code, which is true:
IF A > B THEN
C = A – B
ELSE
C = A + B
ENDIF
Read D
IF C = D Then
Print “Error”
ENDIF
a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 2 tests for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
d) 3 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
e) 3 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

145) Consider the following:
Pick up and read the newspaper
Look at what is on television
If there is a program that you are interested in watching then switch the the television on and watch the
program
Otherwise
Continue reading the newspaper
If there is a crossword in the newspaper then try and complete the crossword
a) SC = 1 and DC = 1
b) SC = 1 and DC = 2
c) SC = 1 and DC = 3
d) SC = 2 and DC = 2
e) SC = 2 and DC = 3

146) The place to start if you want a (new) test tool is:
a) Attend a tool exhibition
b) Invite a vendor to give a demo
c) Analyse your needs and requirements
d) Find out what your budget would be for the tool
e) Search the internet

147) When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:
a) A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
b) Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
c) The independent testing team
d) The managers to see what projects it should be used in
e) The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts

148) What can static analysis NOT find?
a) The use of a variable before it has been defined
b) Unreachable (“dead”) code
c) Whether the value stored in a variable is correct
d) The re-definition of a variable before it has been used
e) Array bound violations

149) Which of the following is NOT a black box technique:
a) Equivalence partitioning
b) State transition testing
c) LCSAJ
d) Syntax testing
e) Boundary value analysis

150) Beta testing is:
a) Performed by customers at their own site
b) Performed by customers at their software developer’s site
c) Performed by an independent test team
d) Useful to test bespoke software
e) Performed as early as possible in the lifecycle

151) Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by developers and which by an
independent test team:
i. static analysis
ii. performance testing
iii. test management
iv. dynamic analysis
v. test running
vi. test data preparation
a) developers would typically use i, iv and vi; test team ii, iii and v
b) developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii, iii, v and vi
c) developers would typically use i, ii, iii and iv; test team v and vi
d) developers would typically use ii, iv and vi; test team I, ii and v
e) developers would typically use i, iii, iv and v; test team ii and vi

152) The main focus of acceptance testing is:
a) finding faults in the system
b) ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users
c) testing the system with other systems
d) testing for a business perspective
e) testing by an independent test team

153) Which of the following statements about the component testing standard is false:
a) black box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique
b) white box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique
c) cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
d) black box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique
e) white box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique

154) Which of the following statements is NOT true:
a) inspection is the most formal review process
b) inspections should be led by a trained leader
c) managers can perform inspections on management documents
d) inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents
e) inspection compares documents with predecessor (source) documents

155) A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following EXCEPT:
a) generating expected outputs
b) replaying inputs according to a programmed script
c) comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
d) recording test inputs
e) reading test values from a data file

156) The difference between re-testing and regression testing is
a) re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects
b) re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating those tests
c) re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
d) re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same environment
e) re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by independent testers

157) Expected results are:
a) only important in system testing
b) only used in component testing
c) never specified in advance
d) most useful when specified in advance
e) derived from the code

158) Test managers should not:
a) report on deviations from the project plan
b) sign the system off for release
c) re-allocate resource to meet original plans
d) raise incidents on faults that they have found
e) provide information for risk analysis and quality improvement

159) Unreachable code would best be found using:
a) code reviews
b) code inspections
c) a coverage tool
d) a test management tool
e) a static analysis tool

160) A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests is called:
a) a dynamic analysis tool
b) a test execution tool
c) a debugging tool
d) a test management tool
e) a configuration management tool